HAM Radio 3.2/Ham Radio Version 3.2 (Chestnut CD-ROMs)(1993).ISO/exam/techexam/poolall

Text File | 1991-11-03 | 112KB | 3,829 lines

           FCC Technician Exam Question Pool - Subelements 3AA - 3AI
                     (Valid 7/1/90 thru 10/31/92)



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    SUBELEMENT 3AA - RULES AND REGULATIONS (5 Exam Questions)

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3A-1.1   A
What is the CONTROL POINT of an Amateur Station?

 A. The location at which the control operator function is performed.
 B. The operating position of any amateur station operating as a
    repeater station.
 C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter,
    even if it is operated by radio link from some other
    location.
 D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter.


3A-1.2   B
What is the term for the location at which the control operator
function is performed?

 A. The operating desk.
 B. The control point.
 C. The station location.
 D. The manual control location.


3A-2.1   A
This question has been withdrawn from the question bank.
Type "A" to skip and continue with quiz.


3A-2.2   C
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only.


3A-2.3   B
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced only.


3A-2.4   A
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced only.


3A-2.5   B
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced only.


3A-3.1   A
How often do amateur service licenses generally need to be renewed?

 A. Every 10 years.
 B. Every 5 years.
 C. Every 2 years.
 D. They are lifetime licenses.


3A-3.2   A
The FCC currently issues amateur licenses carrying 10-year terms.
What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an
expired 10-year license?

 A. 2 years.
 B. 5 years.
 C. 10 years
 D. There is no grace period.


3A-3.3   A
What action would you take to modify your operator/primary station
license?

 A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Gettysburg, PA.
 B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC
    field office.
 C. Write the FCC at their nearest field office.
 D. There is no need to modify an amateur license between renewals.


3A-4.1   B
On what frequencies within the 6 meter wavelength band may FM phone
emissions be transmitted?

 A. 50.0 - 54.0 MHz only.
 B. 50.1 - 54.0 MHz only.
 C. 51.0 - 54.0 MHz only.
 D. 52.0 - 54.0 MHz only.


3A-4.2   A
On what frequencies within the 2 meter wavelength band may FM image
emissions be transmitted?

 A. 144.1 - 148.0 MHz only.
 B. 146.0 - 148.0 MHz only.
 C. 144.0 - 148.0 MHz only.
 D. 146.0 - 148.0 MHz only.


3A-4.3   A
What emission mode may always be used for station
identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency.

 A. CW
 B. RTTY
 C. MCW
 D. PHONE


3A-5.1   D
If you are using a frequency within a band designated to the
amateur service on a secondary basis and another station assigned to a
primary service on that band causes interference, what action should
you take?

 A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer-In -Charge of the interference.
 B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference.
 C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the
    interference.
 D. Change frequencies; you may also be causing interference to the
    other station and that would be a violation of FCC rules.


3A-5.2   C
What is the basic principle of frequency sharing between two stations
allocated to a primary service within a frequency band, but each
in a different ITU Region or Subregion?

 A. The station with a control operator holding a lesser class
    of license must yield the frequency to the station with a control
    operator holding a higher class license.
 B. The station with a lower power output must yield the frequency
    to the station with a higher power output.
 C. Both station have an equal right to operate on the frequency.
 D. Stations in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to
    stations in ITU Region 2.


3A-6-1.1   C
FCC Rules specify the maximum transmitter power that you may use with
your amateur station.  At what point in your station is the
transmitter power measured?

 A. By measuring the final amplifier supply voltage inside the
    transmitter or amplifier.
 B. By measuring the final amplifier supply current inside the
    transmitter or amplifier.
 C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier.
 D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line.


3A-6-1.2   D
What is the term used to define the average power supplied to the
antenna transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the
modulation envelope?

 A. Peak transmitter power.
 B. Peak output power.
 C. Average radio-frequency power.
 D. Peak envelope power.


3A-6-2.1   C
Notwithstanding the numerical limitations in the FCC Rules,
how much transmitting power shall be used by an Amateur Station.

 A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits.
 B. The minimum power level required to achieve S9 signal
    reports.
 C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
    communication.
 D. The maximum power available, as long as it is under the
    allowable limit.

3A-6-3.1   D
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station on 146.52 MHz?

 A.  200 watts PEP output.
 B.  500 watts ERP.
 C. 1000 watts DC input.
 D. 1500 watts PEP output.

3A-6-4.1   B
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
Amateur Station in beacon operation?

 A. 10 watts PEP output.
 B. 100 watts PEP output.
 C. 500 watts PEP output.
 D. 1500 watts PEP output.

3A-7-1.1   C
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
RTTY transmission between 28 and 50 MHz?

 A. 56 kilobaud.
 B. 19.6 kilobaud.
 C. 1200 baud.
 D. 300 baud.


3A-7-1.2   B
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
RTTY transmission between 50 and 220 MHz?

 A. 56 kilobaud.
 B. 19.6 kilobaud.
 C. 1200 baud.
 D. 300 baud.


3A-7-1.3   D
What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an
RTTY transmission above 220 MHz?

 A. 300 baud.
 B. 1200 baud.
 C. 19.6 kilobaud.
 D. 56 kilobaud.


3A-7-2.1   C
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for
RTTY when transmitted below 50-MHz.?

 A. 100 Hz.
 B. 500 Hz.
 C. 1000 Hz.
 D. 5000 Hz.


3A-7-2.2   C
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for
emission F1B  when transmitted above 50-MHz.?

 A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater.
 B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater.
 C. The FCC rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above 50 MHz.
 D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater.


3A-7-3.1   A
What is the authorized bandwidth of an RTTY, data or multiplexed
emission using a specified digital code within the frequency
range of 50 to 220 MHz?

 A. 20 kHz.
 B. 50 kHz.
 C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a
    single-sideband emission.
 D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission.


3A-7-3.2   D
What is the authorized bandwidth of an RTTY, data or multiplexed
emission using an unspecified digital code within the frequency
range of 220 to 450 MHz?

 A. 50 kHz.
 B. 150 kHz.
 C. 200 kHz.
 D. 100 kHz.


3A-7-3.3   D
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth permitted of an RTTY,
data or multiplexed emission using an unspecified digital code
within the 420 to 450 Mhz amateur band?

 A. 50 kHz.
 B. 200 kHz.
 C. 300 kHz.
 D. 100 kHz.

3A-8-1.1   B
How must a control operator who has a Novice license and
a CERTIFICATE OF SUCCESSFUL COMPLETION OF EXAMINATION for Technician
privileges identify the station when transmitting on 146.34 MHz?

 A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until His/Her
    new license arrives.
 B. The licensee gives His/Her call sign, followed by any suitable
    word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "KT".
 C. No special form of identification is needed.
 D. The licensee gives His/Her call sign and states the
    location of the VE examination where he obtained the
    Certificate Of Successful Completion.


3A 8-2.1   B
Which language(s) must be used, when making the station
identification by telephony?

 A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it
    is not English, providing the U.S. has a third-party
    traffic agreement with that country.
 B. English must be used for identification.
 C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that
    language is a member of the International
    Telecommunication Union.
 D. The language being used for the contact must be used for
    identification purposes.


3A 8-3.1   C
What does the FCC recommend to aid correct station
identification when using phone?

 A. A speech compressor.
 B. Q signals.
 C. A recognized phonetic alphabet.
 D. Unique words of the operator's choice.


3A-9-1.1   A
What is the term used to describe an amateur station transmitting
communications for the purpose of observation of propagation
and reception or other related experimental activities?

 A. Beacon operation.
 B. Repeater operation.
 C. Auxiliary operation.
 D. Radio control operation.


3A-9-2.1   A
What class of amateur operator license must you hold to
operate a beacon station?

 A. Technician, General, advanced or Amateur Extra class.
 B. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class.
 C. Amateur Extra class only.
 D. Any class license.


3A-10.1   A
What is the maximum transmitter power an Amateur Station is
permitted when transmitting signals to control a model craft?

 A. One watt.
 B. One milliwatt.
 C. Two watts.
 D. Three watts.


3A-10.2   C
What information must be indicated on the label affixed
to a transmitter when transmitting signals to control a model craft?

 A. Station call sign.
 B. Station call sign and operating times.
 C. Station call sign and licensee's name and address.
 D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times.


3A-10.3   D
What are the station identification requirements for an
Amateur Station transmitting signal to control a model craft.

 A. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of
    each transmission.
 B. Once every ten minutes.
 C. At the beginning and end of each transmission.
 D. Station identification is not required provided that a label
    indicating the station call sign and the station licensee's
    name and address is affixed to the station transmitter.


3A-10.4   B
Where must the writing indicating the station call sign
and the licensee's name and address be affixed in order to
operate under the special rules for radio control of
remote model craft and vehicles?

 A. It must be in the operator's possession.
 B. It must be affixed to the transmitter.
 C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle.
 D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC Field Office.


3A-11-1.1   A
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another
amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has coordinated
(recommends) the operation of one station and not the other,
who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference?

 A. The licensee of the noncoordinated (unrecommended) repeater.
 B. Both repeater licensees.
 C. The licensee of the coordinated (recommended) repeater.
 D. The frequency coordinator.


3A-11-1.2   B
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another
amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has coordinated
(recommends) the operation of both stations, who is primarily
responsible for resolving the interference?

 A. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated
    for the longest time.
 B. Both repeater licensees.
 C. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated
    the most recently.
 D. The frequency coordinator.


3A-11-1.3   A
If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference to another
amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has not coordinated
the operation of either station, who is primarily responsible
for resolving the interference?

 A. Both repeater licensees.
 B. The license of the repeater which has been in operation
    for the longest period of time.
 C. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation
    for the shortest period of time.
 D. The frequency coordinator.


3A-11-2.1   D
Under what circumstances does the FCC declare a TEMPORARY
STATE OF COMMUNICATIONS EMERGENCY?

 A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress.
 B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz.
 C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are
    disrupted.
 D. When a disaster disrupts normal communications
    systems in a particular area.


3A-11-2.2   A
By what means should a request for a declaration of a TEMPORARY
STATE OF COMMUNICATION EMERGENCY be initiated?

 A. Communication with the FCC Engineer-In-Charge of the
    affected area.
 B. Communication with the U.S. senator or congressman for the
    area affected.
 C. Communication with the local Emergency Coordinator.
 D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio
    Bureau.


3A-11-2.3   C
What information is included in an FCC declaration of
a TEMPORARY STATE OF COMMUNICATIONS EMERGENCY?

 A. Designation of the areas affected and of organizations
    authorized to use radio communications in the affected area.
 B. Designation of Amateur frequency bands for use only by
    Amateurs participating in emergency communications in the
    affected area, and complete suspension of Novice operating
    privileges for the duration of the emergency.
 C. Any special conditions and rules to be observed during the
    communications emergency.
 D. Suspension of Amateur rules regarding station
    identification and business communication.


3A-11-2.4   A
If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area
where the amateur  service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds
of transmissions are authorized to amateur stations in such an area?

 A. Communication which are necessary to meet essential
    communication needs and facilitate relief actions.
 B. Communications which allow a commercial business to
    continue to operate in the affected area.
 C. Communications for which material compensation has
    been paid to the amateur operator for delivery
    into the affected area.
 D. Communications which are to be used for program production
    or news gathering for broadcasting purposes.


3A-12.1   A
What is meant by the term BROADCASTING?

 A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general
    public, either direct or relayed.
 B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals
    emanating from any class of station other than Amateur.
 C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication,
    regardless of purpose or content.
 D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more
    than two stations.


3A-12.2   C
Which of the following is an amateur station that cannot
automatically retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations?

 A. Auxiliary station.
 B. Repeater station.
 C. Beacon station.
 D. Space station.


3A-12.3   B
Which of the following is an amateur station that is permitted to
automatically retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations?

 A. Beacon station.
 B. Space station.
 C. Official bulletin station.
 D. RACES station.


3A-12.4   D
What type of radio signals may be directly retransmitted by
an amateur station?

 A. AM radio station.
 B. Police or fire department radio station.
 C. NOAA weather station.
 D. US Government communications between the space shuttle
    and associated Earth stations with prior approval from
    the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).



3A-12.5   C
When may US Government communications between the space shuttle
and associated Earth stations be directly retransmitted by an
amateur station?

 A. After prior approval has been obtained from the FCC
    in Washington, DC.
 B. No radio stations other than amateur may be retransmitted
    in the amateur service.
 C. After prior approval has been obtained from the National
    Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
 D. After prior approval has been obtained for the nearest
    FCC Engineer-In-Charge.


3A-13.1   B
What kinds of one-way communications by Amateur Stations
are not considered broadcasting?

 A. All types of one-way communications by Amateurs are
    considered by the FCC as broadcasting.
 B. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, emergency
    communications, information bulletins consisting
    solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur
    service, and telegraphy practice.
 C. Only code-practice transmissions conducted simultaneously
    on all available Amateur bands below 30 MHz and
    conducted for more than 40 hours per week are not
    considered broadcasting.
 D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared
    communications emergency are exempt.


3A-13.2   D
Which of the following one-way communications may not be
transmitted in the amateur service?

 A. Transmissions to remotely controlled a device at a
    distant location.
 B. Transmissions to assist persons learning or improving
    their proficiency in Morse code.
 C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station.
 D. Transmission of music.


3A-13.3   D
What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be
transmitted by Amateur Stations?

 A. NOAA weather bulletins.
 B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations.
 C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning
    Amateur Radio equipment for sale or trade.
 D. Messages directed only to amateur operators consisting solely
    of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur service.


3A-13.4   C
What types of one-way Amateur Radio communications may
be transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. Beacon operation, radio control, code practice,
    retransmission of other services.
 B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an
    unmodulated carrier, NOAA weather bulletins.
 C. Beacon operation, remote operation of a device, information
    bulletins consisting solely of information of direct interest
    to the amateur service, telegraphy practice and emergency
    communications.
 D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions,
    automatic retransmission of NOAA weather
    transmissions, code practice.

3A-14.1   D
What types of material compensation, if any, may be involved
in third-party communications transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the Amateur Operator
    and the parties involved.
 B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment.
 C. Donation of Amateur equipment to the control operator.
 D. No compensation may be accepted.


3A-14.2   C
What types of business communications, if any, may be
transmitted by an Amateur Station on behalf of a third party?

 A. The FCC rules specifically prohibit communications with a business
    for any reason.
 B. Business communications involving the sale of Amateur
    radio equipment.
 C. Communications to a business may be provided during an
    emergency as provided by the FCC rules.
 D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station.


3A-14.3   D
Does the FCC allow third-party messages when communicating with
Amateur Radio operators in a foreign country?

 A. Third-party messages with a foreign country are only allowed
    on behalf of other amateurs.
 B. Yes, provided the third-party message involves the immediate
    family of one of the communicating amateurs.
 C. Under no circumstance may US amateurs exchange third-party
    messages with an amateur in a foreign country.
 D. Yes, when communicating with a person in a country with
    which the US shares a third-party agreement.


3A-15.1   A
Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party participate in
radio communications from an Amateur Station if the third party is
ineligible to be a control operator of one of the stations?

 A. A control operator must be present at the control point and
    continuously monitor and supervise the third party participation.
    Also, contacts may only be made with Amateurs in the US and countries
    with which the US has a third-party communications agreement.
 B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
    supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the
    rules only if contacts are made with Amateurs in countries with which
    the US has no third party communications agreement.
 C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
    supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules.
    In addition, the control operator must key the transmitter and
    make the station identification.
 D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
    supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules.
    In addition, if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz., the
    control operator must transmit the call signs of both stations
    involved in the contact at 10 minute intervals.


3A-15.2   C
Where must the control operator be situated when a third-party
is participating in radio communications from an Amateur Station?

 A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator
    may be physically separated from the control point,
    when provisions are incorporated to shut off the
    transmitter by remote control.
 B. If the control operator supervises the third party until
    he or she is satisfied of the competence of the third
    party, the control operator may leave the control point.
 C. The control operator must be present at the control point.
 D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license
    issued by the FCC, no supervision is necessary.


3A-15.3   D
What must the control operator do while a third-party is
participating in radio communications?

 A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph
    license, no supervision is necessary.
 B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the
    transmitting frequency on another receiver, to insure
    that no interference is taking place.
 C. If a radio control link is available, the control operator
    may leave the room.
 D. The control operator must continuously monitor and
    supervise the third party's participation.


3A-15.4   B
In an exchange of international third-party communications, when
is the station identification procedure required?

 A. Only at the beginning of the communications.
 B. At the end of each exchange of communications.
 C. The station identification procedure is not required during
    international third-party communications.
 D. Only at the end of multiple exchanges of communications.


3A-16.1   B
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station
transmit radio communications containing obscene words?

 A. Obscene words are permitted when they do
    not cause interference to any other radio
    communication or signal.
 B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions.
 C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not
    retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations.
 D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule
    among Amateurs that they should not be used on the air.


3A-16.2   D
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station
transmit radio communications containing indecent words?

 A. Indecent words are permitted when they do
    not cause interference to any other radio
    communication or signal.
 B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not
    retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations.
 C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule
    among Amateurs that they should not be used on the air.
 D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions.


3A-16.3   C
Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station
transmit radio communications containing profane words?

 A. Profane words are permitted when they are not
    retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations.
 B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule
    among Amateurs that they should not be used on the air.
 C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions.
 D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause interference
    to any other radio communication or signal.


3A-17.1   A
Which of the following VHF/UHF bands may not be used by Earth
stations for satellite communications?

 A. 6 meters.
 B. 2 meters.
 D. 23 centimeters.
 D. 70 centimeters.


End of subelement 3AA.


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       SUBELEMENT 3AB   OPERATING PROCEDURES (3  Exam Questions)

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3B-1.1   A
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven..."?

 A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong.
 B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak.
 C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty.
 D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone.


3B-1.2   C
What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three..."?

 A. The contact is serial number thirty three.
 B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees.
 C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
    and weak in strength.
 D. The contact is unreadable, very weak in strength.


3B-1.3   D
What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20dB..."?

 A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100.
 B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher.
 C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity.
 D. A relative signal strength meter reading is 20 decibels
    greater than strength 9.


3B-2-1.1   B
How should a QSO be initiated through
a station in repeater operation?

 A. Say "breaker, breaker 79."
 B. Call the desired station and then
    identify your own station.
 C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times.
 D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it.


3B 2-1.2   C
Why should users of a station in repeater operation
pause briefly between transmissions?

 A. To check the SWR of the repeater.
 B. To reach for pencil and paper for third party traffic.
 C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in.
 D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch.


3B-2-1.3   A
Why should users of a station in repeater operation
keep their transmissions short and thoughtful?

 A. A long transmission may prevent someone with
    an emergency from using the repeater.
 B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake.
 C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond.
 D. To keep long distance charges down.


3B-2-1.4   D
What is the proper procedure to break into an ongoing QSO
through a station in repeater operation?

 A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling.
 B. Shout, "Break, Break!" to show that you're eager
    to join the conversation.
 C. Turn on your 100 watt amplifier
    and override whoever is talking.
 D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions.


3B-2-1.5   B
What is the purpose of repeater operation.

 A. To cut your power bill by using someone's
    higher power system.
 B. To enable mobile and low power stations
    to extend their usable range.
 C. To reduce your telephone bill.
 D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away.


3B-2-1.6   B
What is meant by "Making The Repeater Time Out"?

 A. The repeater's battery supply has run out.
 B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during
    a single transmission.
 C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired.
 D. The repeater is in need of repairs.


3B-2-1.7   D
During the commuting rush hours, which types of operation
should relinquish the use of the repeater?

 A. Mobile operators.
 B. Low power stations.
 C. Highway traffic information nets.
 D. Third-party communications nets.


3B-2-2.1   C
Why should simplex be used where possible instead
of using a station in repeater operation?

 A. Farther distances can be reached.
 B. To avoid long distance toll charges.
 C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily.
 D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna.


3B-2-2.2   C
When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex operation
and a repeater operation, why does good Amateur practice
call for the simplex operation to move to another frequency?

 A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the
    front end of the station in simplex operation.
 B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators.
 C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical.
 D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization
    of the Federal Communications Commission.



3B-2-3.1   D
What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 2 meter wavelength band?

 A. 1 MHz.
 B. 1.6 MHz.
 C. 170 Hz.
 D. 0.6 MHz.


3B-2-3.2   B
What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 70 centimeter band?

 A. 1.6 MHz.
 B. 5 MHz.
 C. 600 kHz.
 D. 5 kHz.


3B-2-3.3   A
What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for
a 6 meter station in repeater operation?

 A. 1 MHz.
 B. 600 kHz.
 C. 1.6 MHz.
 D. 20 kHz.


3B-2-3.4   C
What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for
a 1.25 meter station in repeater operation?

 A. 1000 kHz.
 B. 600 kHz.
 C. 1600 kHz.
 D. 1.6 GHz.


3B-2-4.1   D
What is a REPEATER FREQUENCY COORDINATOR?

 A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station.
 B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy.
 C. The club's repeater trustee.
 D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs
    for repeater usage.


3B-3.1   A
Why should local Amateur communications
be conducted on VHF and UHF frequencies?

 A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable
    of long distance sky-wave communication.
 B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF.
 C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally.
 D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies.


3B-3.2   B
How can On-The-Air transmissions be minimized during a
lengthy transmitter testing or loading up procedure?

 A. Choose an unoccupied frequency.
 B. Use a dummy antenna.
 C. Use a non-resonant antenna.
 D. Use a resonant antenna that requires
    no loading up procedure.



3B-3.3   C
What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a
frequency is in use before making a transmission?

 A. QRV?
 B. QRU?
 C. QRL?
 D. QRZ?


3B-4.1   A
What is the proper distress calling procedure
when using telephony?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY.
 B. Transmit QRRR.
 C. Transmit QRZ.
 D. Transmit SOS.


3B-4.2   D
What is the proper distress calling procedure
when using telegraphy?

 A. Transmit MAYDAY.
 B. Transmit QRRR.
 C. Transmit QRZ.
 D. Transmit SOS.


3B-5-1.1   C
What is one requirement you must meet before you can
participate in RACES drills?

 A. You must be registered with the ARRL.
 B. You must be registered with a local racing organization.
 C. You must be registered with the responsible civil
    defense organization.
 D. You need not register with anyone to operate RACES.


3B-5-1.2   B
What is the minimum amount of time allowed per week for
RACES drills?

 A. Eight hours.
 B. One hour.
 C. As many hours as you want.
 D. Six hours, but not more than one hour per day.


3B-5-2.1   D
How must you identify messages sent during RACES drills?

 A. As emergency messages.
 B. As amateur traffic.
 C. As official government messages.
 D. As drill or test messages.


3B-6-1.1   A
What is the term used to describe first-response
communications in an emergency situation?

 A. Tactical communications.
 B. Emergency communications.
 C. Formal message traffic.
 D. National Traffic System messages.


3B-6-1.2   B
What is one reason for using tactical call
signs such as "command post" or "weather
center" during an emergency?

 A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on.
 B. They promote efficiency and coordination in public-service
    communications activities.
 C. They are required by the FCC.
 D. They promote goodwill among amateurs.


3B-6-2.1   D
What is the term used to describe messages sent into or out of
a disaster area that pertain to a person's well being?

 A. Emergency traffic.
 B. Tactical traffic.
 C. Formal message traffic.
 D. Health and welfare traffic.


3B-6-3.1   B
Why is it important to provide a means of operating your amateur
station separate from the commercial AC power lines?

 A. So that you can take your station mobile.
 B. So that you can provide communications in an emergency.
 C. So that you can operate field day.
 D. So that you will comply with Subpart 97.169 of the FCC Rules.


3B-6-3.2   C
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a
portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case
of a communications emergency?

 A. A three-element quad.
 B. A three-element Yagi
 C. A dipole.
 D. A parabolic dish.


End of Subelement 3AB


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    SUBELEMENT 3AC - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION (3 Exam Questions)

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3C-1-1.1   A
What is the IONOSPHERE?

 A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and
    free electrons exist to affect radio wave propagation.
 B. The boundary between two air masses of different temperature
    and humidity, along which radio waves can travel.
 C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna.
 D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place.


3C-1-1.2   D
What is the region of the outer atmosphere that
makes long distance radio communications possible
as a result of bending of radio waves?

 A. Troposphere.
 B. Stratosphere.
 C. Magnetosphere.
 D. Ionosphere.


3C-1-1.3   C
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for
ionization in the outer atmosphere?

 A. Thermal.
 B. Ionized particle.
 C. Ultraviolet.
 D. Microwave.


3C-1-2.1   A
Which Ionospheric layer limits daytime radio communications
in the 80 meter wavelength band to short distances?

 A. D layer.
 B. F1 layer.
 C. E layer.
 D. F2 layer.


3C-1-2.2   B
What is the lowest Ionospheric layer?

 A. The A layer.
 B. The D layer.
 C. The E layer.
 D. The F layer.


3C-1-3.1   B
What is the lowest region of the Ionosphere that is
useful for long distance radio wave propagation?

 A. The D layer.
 B. The E layer.
 C. The F1 layer.
 D. The F2 layer.


3C-1-4.1   D
Which layer of the Ionosphere is mainly
responsible for long distance sky wave
radio communication?

 A. D layer.
 B. E layer.
 C. F1 layer.
 D. F2 layer.


3C-1-4.2   B
What are the two distinct sub-layers of the F layer of
the ionosphere during the daytime?

 A. Troposphere and Stratosphere.
 B. F1 and F2.
 C. Electrostatic and Electromagnetic.
 D. D and E.


3C-1-4.3   C
Which two daytime Ionospheric layers
combine into one layer at night?

 A. E and F1.
 B. D and E.
 C. F1 and F2.
 D. E1 and E2.


3C-2.1   D
Which layer of the Ionosphere is most responsible for
absorption of radio signals during daylight hours?

 A. The E layer.
 B. The F1 layer.
 E. The F2 layer.
 D. The D layer.


3C-2.2   B
When is Ionospheric absorption most pronounced?

 A. When Tropospheric ducting occurs.
 B. When radio waves enter the D Layer at low angles.
 C. When radio waves travel to the F Layer.
 D. When a temperature inversion occurs.


3C-2.3   A
During daylight hours, what effect does the D Layer
of the Ionosphere have on 80 meter radio waves?

 A. The D Layer absorbs the signals.
 B. The D Layer bends the radio waves out into space.
 C. The D Layer refracts the radio waves back to Earth.
 D. The D Layer has little or no effect
    on 80 meter radio wave propagation.


3C-2.4   B
What causes IONOSPHERIC ABSORPTION of radio wave?

 A. A lack of D Layer ionization.
 B. D Layer ionization.
 C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E Layer.
 D. Splitting of the F Layer.


3C-3.1   D
What is usually the condition of the
Ionosphere just before sunrise?

 A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum.
 B. Ionization is at a maximum.
 C. The E layer is above the F layer.
 D. Ionization is at a minimum.


3C-3.2   C
At what time of day does maximum
ionization of the Ionosphere occur?

 A. Dusk.
 B. Midnight.
 C. Midday.
 D. Dawn.


3C-3.3   A
Minimum ionization of the Ionosphere
occurs daily at what time?

 A. Shortly before Dawn.
 B. Just after Noon.
 C. Just after Dusk.
 D. Shortly before Midnight.


3C-3.4   B
When is E Layer ionization at a maximum?

 A. Dawn.
 B. Midday.
 C. Dusk.
 D. Midnight.


3C-4.1   D
What is the name for the highest radio frequency that will
be refracted back to Earth?

 A. Lowest Usable Frequency.
 B. Optimum Working Frequency.
 C. Ultra High Frequency.
 D. Critical Frequency.


3C-4.2   C
What causes the MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY to vary?

 A. Variations in the temperature of the air
    at Ionospheric levels.
 B. Upper atmospheric wind patterns.
 C. The amount of ultraviolet and other types
    of radiation received from the Sun.
 D. Presence of ducting.


3C-4.3   A
What does the term MAXIMUM USABLE FREQUENCY refer to?

 A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to
    reach its destination in a single hop.
 B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to
    reach its destination in a single hop.
 C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to
    be absorbed in the lowest Ionospheric layer.
 D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to
    be absorbed in the lowest Ionospheric layer.


3C-5.1   C
When two stations are within each other's skip
zone on the frequency being used, what mode of
propagation would it be desirable to use?

 A. Ground Wave propagation.
 B. Sky Wave propagation.
 C. Scatter Mode propagation.
 D. Ionospheric Ducting propagation.


3C-5.2   C
You are in contact with a distant station and are operating
at a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency.  If
the received signals are weak and somewhat distorted, what
type of propagation are you probably ecperiencing?

 A. Tropospheric ducting.
 B. Line-of-sight propagation.
 C. Backscatter propagation.
 D. Waveguide propagation.


3C-6.1   A
What is the transmission path of a wave that travel directly
from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna called?

 A. Line of sight.
 B. The sky wave.
 C. The linear wave.
 D. The plane wave.


3C-6.2   B
How are VHF signals within the range
of the visible horizon propagated?

 A. By sky wave.
 B. By direct wave.
 C. By plane wave.
 D. By geometric wave.


3C-7.1   C
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?

 A. F2.
 B. Ionosphere.
 C. Troposphere.
 D. Stratosphere.


3C-7.2   A
What effect does tropospheric bending
have on 2 meter radio waves?

 A. It increases the distance over which
    they can be transmitted.
 B. It decreases the distance over which
    they can be transmitted.
 C. It tends to garble 2 meter phone transmissions.
 D. It reverses the sideband of 2 meter phone transmissions.


3C-7.3   D
What atmospheric phenomenon causes
tropospheric ducting of radio waves?

 A. A very low pressure area.
 B. An Aurora to the North.
 C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station.
 D. A temperature inversion.


3C-7.4   A
Tropospheric ducting occurs as
a result of what phenomenon?

 A. A temperature inversion.
 B. Sun spots.
 C. An Aurora to the North.
 D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station.


3C-7.5   B
What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio
waves to be propagated several hundred miles
through stable air masses over oceans?

 A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass.
 B. A widespread temperature inversion.
 C. An overcast of cirriform clouds.
 D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly
    29 inches of Mercury or higher.


3C-7.6   D
In what frequency range does
tropospheric ducting occur most often?

 A. LF.
 B. MF.
 C. HF.
 D. VHF.


End of Subelement 3AC



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      SUBELEMENT 3AD - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES (4 Exam Questions)

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *  * * * * * * *


3D-1-1.1   C
Where should the Green wire in an AC line cord
be attached in a power supply?

 A. To the fuse.
 B. To the "hot" side of the power switch.
 C. To the chassis.
 D. To the meter.


3D-1-1.2   D
Where should the Black (or Red) wire in
a three wire line cord be attached in a power supply?

 A. To the filter capacitor.
 B. To the DC ground.
 C. To the chassis.
 D. To the fuse.


3D-1-1.3   B
Where should the White wire in
a three wire line cord be attached in a power supply.

 A. To the side of the transformer's primary winding
    that has a fuse.
 B. To one side of the transformer's primary winding
    without a fuse.
 C. To the Black wire.
 D. To the rectifier junction.


3D-1-1.4   B
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light socket
made of brass, while the other one is silver colored?

 A. To prevent galvanic action.
 B. To indicate correct polarity.
 C. To better conduct current.
 D. To reduce skin effect.


3D-1-2.1   A
How much electrical current flowing through
the Human Body is usually fatal?

 A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal.
 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal.
 C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being.
 D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of
    over 2000 volts are always fatal, however.


3D-1-2.2   A
What is the minimum voltage considered
to be dangerous to humans?

 A. 30 volts.
 B. 100 volts.
 C. 1000 volts.
 D. 2000 volts.


3D-1-2.3   A
How much electrical current flowing through
the Human Body is usually painful?

 A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful.
 B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful.
 C. More than 20 amperes is needed
    to be painful to a human being.
 D. No amount of current will be painful.  Voltages of
    over 2000 volts are always painful, however.


3D-1-3.1   C
Where should the Main Power line switch for
a High Voltage Power Supply be situated?

 A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power
    when the cabinet is opened.
 B. On the rear panel of the High Voltage Supply.
 C. Where it can be seen and reached easily.
 D. This supply should not be switch operated.


3D-2-1.1   B
How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit under test?

 A. In series with the circuit.
 B. In parallel with the circuit.
 C. In quadrature with the circuit.
 D. In phase with the circuit.


3D-2-2.1   C
How can the range of a voltmeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test.
 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test.
 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter.
 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter.


3D-3-1.1   A
How is an ammeter typically connected to a circuit under test?

 A. In series with the circuit.
 B. In parallel with the circuit.
 C. In quadrature with the circuit.
 D. In phase with the circuit.


3D-3-2.1   D
How can the range of an ammeter be extended?

 A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test.
 B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test.
 C. By adding resistance in series with the meter.
 D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter.


3D-4.1   D
What is a MULTIMETER?

 A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power.
 B. An instrument capable of reading
    resistance, capacitance and inductance.
 C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance.
 D. An instrument capable of reading
    voltage, current and resistance.


3D-5-1.1   A
Where in the antenna transmission line should
a peak-reading wattmeter be attached
to determine the transmitter power output?

 A. At the transmitter output.
 B. At the antenna feedpoint.
 C. One Half wavelength from the antenna feedpoint.
 D. One Quarter wavelength from the transmitter output.


3D-5-1.2   C
For the most accurate readings of a transmitter output power,
where should the RF Wattmeter be inserted?

 A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
    one-quarter wavelength from the antenna feedpoint.
 B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
    one-half wavelength from the antenna feedpoint.
 C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
    measured at the transmitter antenna jack.
 D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
    measured at the Transmatch output.


3D-5-1.3   B
At what line impedance are RF wattmeters usually designed
to operate?

 A.  25 Ohms.
 B.  50 Ohms.
 C. 100 Ohms.
 D. 300 Ohms.


3D-5-1.4   A
What is a DIRECTIONAL WATTMETER?

 A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power.
 B. An instrument that measures the
    directional pattern of an antenna.
 C. An instrument that measures the energy
    consumed by the transmitter.
 D. An instrument that measures thermal
    heating in a load resistor.


3D-5-2.1   B
If a directional RF wattmeter indicates
90 Watts forward power and 10 Watts reflected
power, what is the actual transmitter forward power?

 A. 10 watts.
 B. 80 watts.
 C. 90 watts.
 D. 100 watts.


3D-5-2.2   C
If a directional RF wattmeter indicates
96 Watts forward power and 4 Watts reflected
power, what is the actual transmitter forward power?

 A. 80 watts.
 B. 88 watts.
 C. 92 watts.
 D. 100 watts.


3D-6.1   A
What is a MARKER GENERATOR?

 A. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series
    of reference signals at known frequency intervals.
 B. A low stability oscillator that "Sweeps"
    through a band of frequencies.
 C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to
    determine the craft's location relative
    the inner and outer markers at airports.
 D. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency
    and amplitude can be varied over a wide range.


3D-6.2   D
What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency
calibration signal into a communications receiver?

 A. A product detector.
 B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit.
 C. A balanced modulator.
 D. A crystal calibrator.


3D-6.3   A
How is a MARKER GENERATOR used?

 A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver.
 B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver.
 C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter.
 D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter.


3D-7.1   C
What piece of test equipment produces a stable, low-level signal that
can be set to a specific frequency?

 A. A wavemeter.
 B. A reflectometer.
 C. A signal generator.
 D. A balanced modulator.


3D-7.2   B
What is an RF SIGNAL GENERATOR commonly used for?

 A. Measuring RF signal amplitude.
 B. Aligning receiver tuned circuits.
 C. Adjusting the transmitter impedance matching network.
 D. Measuring transmission line impedance.


3D-8-1.1   D
What is a REFLECTOMETER?

 A. An instrument used to measure signals
    reflected from the Ionosphere.
 B. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance.
 C. An instrument used to measure transmission line impedance.
 D. An instrument used to measure Standing Wave Ratio.


3D-8-1.2   D
What is the device that can indicate an
impedance mismatch in an antenna system?

 A. A field strength meter.
 B. A set of lecher wires.
 C. A wavemeter.
 D. A reflectometer.


3D-8-2.1   A
For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match
between an antenna and feedline, where should the
match indicating device be inserted?

 A. At the antenna feedpoint.
 B. At the transmitter.
 C. At the midpoint of the feedline.
 D. Anywhere along the feedline.


3D-8-2.2   C
Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a
long antenna transmission line in order to obtain
the most valid Standing Wave Ratio indication?

 A. At any quarter wavelength interval
    along the transmission line.
 B. At the receiver end.
 C. At the antenna end.
 D. At any even half wavelength interval
    along the transmission line.


3D-9.1   D
When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what
device is connected to the transmitter output?

 A. A multimeter.
 B. A set of Litz wires.
 C. A Receiver.
 D. A dummy antenna.


3D-9.2   B
What is a DUMMY ANTENNA?

 A. An isotropic radiator.
 B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter.
 C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements.
 D. The image of an antenna, located below ground.


3D-9.3   C
Of what materials may a dummy antenna be made?

 A. A wire-wound resistor.
 B. A diode and resistor combination.
 C. A noninductive resistor.
 D. A coil and capacitor combination.


3D-9.4   B
What station accessory is used in place of an antenna
during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated?

 A. A Transmatch.
 B. A dummy antenna.
 C. A low-pass filter.
 D. A decoupling resistor.


3D-9.5   A
What is the purpose of a DUMMY LOAD?

 A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing.
 B. To reduce output power for QRP operation.
 C. To give comparative signal reports.
 D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference.


3D-9.6   A
How many watts should a dummy load for use
with a 100 watt single-sideband phone transmitter
be able to dissipate?

 A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous.
 B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous.
 C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous.
 D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous.


3D-10.1   C
What is an S-METER?

 A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression.
 B. A meter used to measure spurious
    emissions from a transmitter.
 C. A meter used to measure relative
    signal strength in a receiver.
 D. A meter used to measure solar flux.


3D-10.2   A
A meter used to measure relative signal strength
in a receiver is known as what?

 A. An S-meter.
 B. An RST-meter.
 C. A signal deviation meter.
 D. An SSB meter.


3D-11-1.1   B
Large amounts of RF energy may cause damage to body tissue,
depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy
density of the RF field, and other factors.  How does
RF energy effect body tissue?

 A. It causes radiation poisoning.
 B. It heats the tissue.
 C. It cools the Tissue.
 D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue.


3D-11-1.2   A
Which body organ is most susceptible to damage from the
heating effects of radio frequency radiation?

 A. Eyes.
 B. Hands.
 C. Heart.
 D. Liver.


3D-11-2.1   D
Scientists have devoted a great deal of effort to determine
safe RF exposure limits.  What organization has established
an RF protection guide?

 A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers.
 B. The American Radio Relay League.
 C. The Environmental Protection Agency.
 D. The American National Standards Institute.



3D-11-2.2   B
What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?

 A> It protects you from unscrupulous radio dealers.
 B. It sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances.
 C. It sets transmitter power limits.
 D. It sets antenna height requirements.


3D-11-2.3   B
The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide
sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances.  In what
frequency range is the maximum exposure level the most
stringent (lowest)?

 A. 3 to 30 MHz.
 B. 30 to 300 MHz.
 C. 300 to 3000 MHz.
 D. Above 1.5 GHz.


3D-11-2.4   D
The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide
sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances.
Why is the maximum exposure level the most stringent (lowest)
in the ranges between 30 Mhz and 300 MHz??

 A. There are fewer transmitters operating in this
    frequency range.
 B. There are more transmitters operating in this
    frequency range.
 C. Most transmissions in this frequency range are
    for an extended time.
 D. Human body lengths are close to whole-body
    resonance in that range.


3D-11-2.5   B
The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide
sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances.  What
is the maximum safe power output to the antenna terminal of a
hand-held VHF or UHF radio, as set by this RF protection guide?

 A. 125 milliwatts.
 B. 7 watts.
 C. 10 watts.
 D. 25 watts.


3D-11-3.1   C
After you make internal tuning adjustments to your VHF power
amplifier, what should you do before you turn the amplifier on?

 A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling.
 B. Connect a noise bridge to eliminate any interference.
 C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place.
 D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not
    cause any interference.

End Subelement 3AD


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     SUBELEMENT 3AE - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES (2 Exam questions)

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *


3E-1-1.1   D
What is meant by the term RESISTANCE?

 A. The opposition to the flow of current in an
    electrical circuit containing inductors.
 B. The opposition to the flow of current in an
    electrical circuit containing capacitance.
 C. The opposition to the flow of current in an
    electrical circuit containing reactance.
 D. The opposition to the flow of current in an
    electrical circuit that does not contain reactance.




3E-1-2.1   A
What is an OHM?

 A. The basic unit of resistance.
 B. The basic unit of capacitance.
 C. The basic unit of inductance.
 D. The basic unit of admittance.


3E-1-2.2   D
What is the unit measurement of Resistance?

 A. Volt.
 B. Ampere.
 C. Joule.
 D. Ohm.


3E-1-3.1   B
Two equal-value resistors are connected in series.
How does the total resistance of this combination
compare with the value of either resistor by itself?

 A. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor.
 B. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor.
 C. The total resistance is the same as the value of either
    resistor.
 D. The total resistance is the square of the value of either
    resistor.

3E-1-3.2   D
How does the total resistance of a string of series-connected
resistors compare to the values of the individual resistors?

 A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of all the
    individual resistor values.
 B. The total resistance is the square root of the sum of
    the individual resistor values.
 C. The total resistance is the sum of the squares of the
    individual resistor values.
 D. The total resistance is the sum of all the
    individual resistor values.


3E-1-4.1   B
Two equal-value resistors are connected in parallel.
How does the total resistance of this combination
compare with the value of either resistor by itself?

 A. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor.
 B. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor.
 C. The total resistance is the square of the value of either
    resistor.
 D. The total resistance is the same as the value of either
    resistor.


3E-1-4.2   C
How does the total resistance of a string of parallel-connected
resistors compare to the values of the individual resistors?

 A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of the
    resistor values.
 B. The total resistance is more than the highest-value resistor
    is the combination.
 C. The total resistance is less than the smallest-value resistor
    in the combination.
 D. The total resistance is the same as the highest-value resistor
    in the combination.



3E-2.1   D
What is OHM'S LAW?

 A. A mathematical relationship between resistance,
    voltage and power in a circuit.
 B. A mathematical relationship between current,
    resistance and power in a circuit.
 C. A mathematical relationship between current,
    voltage and power in a circuit.
 D. A mathematical relationship between resistance,
    current and applied voltage in a circuit.


3E-2.2   A
How is the current in a DC circuit calculated
when the voltage and resistance are known?

 A. I = E / R.
 B. P = I x E.
 C. I = R x E.
 D. I = E x R.


3E-2.3   C
What is the input resistance of a load when a
12 volt battery supplies 0.25 amperes to it?

 A. 0.02 ohms.
 B. 3 ohms.
 C. 48 ohms.
 D. 480 ohms.


3E-2.4   D
The product of the current and what force
gives the electrical power in a circuit?

 A. Magnetomotive force.
 B. Centripetal force.
 C. Electrochemical force.
 D. Electromotive force.


3E-2.5   B
What is the input resistance of a load when a
12 volt battery supplies 0.15 amperes to it?

 A.   8 Ohms.
 B.  80 Ohms.
 C. 100 Ohms.
 D. 800 Ohms.


3E-2.6   D
When 120 Volts is measured across a 4700 Ohm Resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 39 Amperes.
 B. 3.9 Amperes
 C. 0.26 Amperes.
 D. 0.026 Amperes


3E-2.7   D
When 120 Volts is measured across a 47000 Ohm Resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 392 A.
 B. 39.2 A.
 C. 26 mA.
 D. 2.6 mA.


3E-2.8   A
When 12 Volts is measured across a 4700 Ohm Resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 2.6 mA.
 B. 26 mA.
 C. 39.3 A.
 D. 392 A.


3E-2.9   A
When 12 Volts is measured across a 47000 Ohm Resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?

 A. 255 uA.
 B. 255 mA.
 C. 3917 mA.
 D. 3917 A.


3E3-1.1   C
What is the term used to describe the ability of a
component to store energy in a magnetic field?

 A. Admittance.
 B. Capacitance.
 C. Inductance.
 D. Resistance.


3E-3-2.1   C
What is the basic unit of Inductance?

 A. Coulomb.
 B. Farad
 C. Henry.
 D. Ohm..


3E-3-2.2   C
What is a HENRY?

 A. A basic unit of admittance.
 B. A basic unit of capacitance.
 C. A basic unit of inductance.
 D. A basic unit of resistance.


3E-3-2.3   B
What is a MICROHENRY?

 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys.
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys.
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys.
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(+6) Henrys.



3E-3-2.4   C
What is a MILIHENRY?

 A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-12) Henrys.
 B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-6) Henrys.
 C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(-3) Henrys.
 D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10^(+6) Henrys.


3E-3-3.1   B
Two equal-value inductors are connected in series.
How does the total inductance of this combination
compare with the value of either inductor by itself?

 A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor.
 B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor.
 C. The total inductance is equal to the value of either inductor.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances.

3E-3-3.2   B
How does the total inductance of a string of series-connected
inductors compare to the values of the individual inductors?

 A. The total inductance is equal to the average of all the
    individual inductances.
 B. The total inductance is equal to the sum of all of
    the individual inductances.
 C. The total inductance is the sum of the squares of the
    individual inductances.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances.


3E-3-4.1   A
Two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel.
How does the total inductance of this combination
compare with the value of either inductor by itself?


 A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor.
 B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor.
 C. The total inductance is equal to the square of either
    inductor.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances.


3E-3-4.2   B
How does the total inductance of a string of parallel-connected
inductors compare to the values of the individual inductors?

 A. The total inductance is equal to the sum of the inductances
    in the combination.
 B. The total resistance is less than the smallest inductance value
    in the combination.
 C. The total inductance is equal to the average of the inductances
    in the combination.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances.


3E-4-1.1   A
What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store
energy in an electric field?

 A. Capacitance.
 B. Inductance.
 C. Resistance.
 D. Tolerance.


3E-4-2.1   A
What is the basic unit of Capacitance?

 A. Farad.
 B. Ohm.
 C. Volt.
 D. Ampere.


3E-4-2.2   B
What is a MICROFARAD?

 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12) Farads.
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6)Farads.
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads.
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(+6) Farads.


3E-4-2.3   A
What is a PICOFARAD?

 A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-12) Farads.
 B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-6) Farads.
 C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(-2) Farads.
 D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10^(+6) Farads.


3E-4-2.4   B
What is a FARAD?

 A. A basic unit of resistance.
 B. A basic unit of capacitance.
 C. A basic unit of inductance.
 D. A basic unit of admittance.


3E-4-3.1   C
Two equal-value capacitors are connected in series.
How does the total capacitance of this combination
compare with the value of either capacitor by itself?

 A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor.
 B. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor.
 C. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
    capacitances.

3E-4-3.2   B
How does the total capacitance of a string of series-connected
capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors?

 A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances
    in the combination.
 B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of capacitance.
 C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances
    in the combination.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances.


3E-4-4.1   A
Two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel.
How does the total capacitance of this combination
compare with the value of either capacitor by itself?

 A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor.
 B. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor.
 C. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances.


3E-4-4.2   A
How does the total capacitance of a string of parallel-connected
capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors?

 A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances
    in the combination.
 B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of
    capacitance in the combination.
 C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the
    capacitances in the combination.
 D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances.


End Subelement 3AE



* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

          SUBELEMENT 3AF - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS (2 Exam questions)


* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *



3F-1-1.1   B
What are the four common types of resistor construction?

 A. Carbon-film, metal-film, micro-film and wire-film.
 B. Carbon-composition, carbon film, metal-film and wire-wound.
 C. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, electrolytic and metal-film.
 D. Carbon-film, ferrite, carbon-composition and metal-film.


3F-1-2.1   D
What is the primary function of a Resistor?

 A. To store an electric charge.
 B. To store a magnetic field.
 C. To match a high impedance source to a low impedance load.
 D. To limit the current in an electric circuit.


3F-1-2.2   C
What is a VARIABLE RESISTOR?

 A. A Resistor that changes value when
    an AC voltage is applied to it.
 B. A device that can transform a variable
    voltage into a constant voltage.
 C. A Resistor with a slide contact that
    makes the resistance adjustable.
 D. A Resistor that changes value when it is heated.


3F-1-3.1   A
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in Ohms.
 B. The resistance tolerance in Percent.
 C. The power rating in Watts.
 D. The value of the resistor in Henrys.


3F-1-3.2   B
How can a carbon resistor's electrical
tolerance rating be found?

 A. By using a wavemeter.
 B. By using the resistor's color code.
 C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors.
 D. By using the Baudot code.


3F-1-3.3   B
What does the forth color band on a resistor indicate?

 A. The value of the resistor in Ohms.
 B. The resistance tolerance in Percent.
 C. The power rating in Watts.
 D. The resistor composition.


3F-1-3.4   C
When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate that
that they all have the same resistance, what further
information about each resistor is needed in order to select
those that have nearly equal value?

 A. The working voltage rating of each resistor.
 B. The composition of each resistor.
 C. The tolerance of each resistor.
 D. The current rating of each resistor.


3F-1-4.1   A
Why do Resistors generate heat?

 A. They convert electrical energy into heat energy.
 B. They exhibit reactance.
 C. Because of skin effect.
 D. To produce thermionic emission.


3F-1-4.2   C
Why would a large size resistor be substituted
for a smaller one of the same resistance?

 A. To obtain better response.
 B. To obtain a higher current gain.
 C. To increase power dissipation capability.
 D. To produce a greater parallel impedance.


3F-1-5.1   B
What is the symbol used to represent a fixed resistor
on schematic diagrams?  (A word description of the symbol
for each choice is given.  The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for an inductor.
 B. Symbol for a resistor.
 C. Symbol for a polarized capacitor.
 D. Symbol for a dual zener diode.

3F-1-5.2   C
What is the symbol used to represent a variable resistor
on schematic diagrams?  (A word description of the symbol
for each choice is given.  The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for a variable inductor.
 B. Symbol for a variable capacitor.
 C. Symbol for a variable resistor.
 D. Symbol for a tapped resistor.


3F-2-1.1   D
What is an inductor core?
 A. The point at which an inductor is tapped to
    produce resonance.
 B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer.
 C. An insulating material placed between the plates
    of an inductor.
 D. The central portion of a coil; may be made of from
    air, iron, brass or other material.


3f-2-1.2   A
What are the component parts of a coil?

 A. The wire in the winding and the core.
 B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material.
 C. Two or more layers of silicon material.
 D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape.


3F-2.1.3   D
Describe an INDUCTOR.

 A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield.
 B. Two parallel conducting plates.
 C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield.
 D. A coil of conducting wire.


3F-2-1.4   C
For radio frequency power applications, which
type of Inductor has the least amount of loss?

 A. Magnetic wire.
 B. Iron core.
 C. Air core.
 D. Slug tuned.


3F-2-2.1   D
What is an INDUCTOR?

 A. An electronic component that stores
    energy in an electric field.
 B. An electronic component that converts
    a high voltage to a lower voltage.
 C. An electronic component that opposes
    DC while allowing AC to pass.
 D. An electronic component that stores
    energy in a magnetic field.


3F-2-2.2   C
What are the electrical properties of an Inductor.

 A. An Inductor stores a charge electrostatically,
    and opposes a change in voltage.
 B. An Inductor stores a charge electrochemically,
    and opposes a change in current.
 C. An Inductor stores a charge electromagnetically,
    and opposes a change in current.
 D. An Inductor stores a charge electromechanically,
    and opposes a change in voltage.


3F-2-3.1   D
What factors determine the amount of Inductance in a coil?

 A. The type of material used in the core,
    the diameter of the core, and whether the
    coil is mounted horizontal or vertical.
 B. The diameter of the core, the number of
    of turns of wire used to wind the
    coil and the type of metal used in the wire.
 C. The type of material used in the core, the
    number of turns used to wind the core, and
    the frequency of the current through the coil.
 D. The type of material used in the core, the
    diameter of the core, the length of the coil,
    and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil.


3F-2-3.2   B
What can be done to raise the inductance of a
5 Microhenry Air Core coil to a 5 Milihenry coil
with the same physical dimensions.

 A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube.
 B. The coil can be wound on an iron core.
 C. Both ends of the coil must be brought around to form the
    shape of a doughnut, or toroid.
 D. The coil must be made of a heavier-gauge wire.



3F-2-3.3   A
As an Iron core is inserted in a coil,
what happens to its inductance?

 A. It increases.
 B. It decreases.
 C. It stays the same.
 D. It becomes voltage-dependent.


3F-2-3.4   B
As a Brass core is inserted in a coil,
what happens to its inductance?

 A. It increases.
 B. It decreases.
 C. It stays the same.
 D. It becomes voltage-dependent.


3F-2-4.1  A
What is the symbol used to represent an adjustable inductor
on schematic diagrams?  (A word description of the symbol
for each choice is given.  The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for a variable inductor.
 B. Symbol for a variable capacitor.
 C. Symbol for a variable resistor.
 D. Symbol for a tapped resistor.


3F-2-4.2   B
What is the symbol used to represent an iron-core inductor
on schematic diagrams?  (A word description of the symbol
for each choice is given.  The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for a fixed resistor with two parallel solid
    lines alongside.
 B. Symbol for an inductor with two parallel solid lines
    alongside.
 C. Symbol showing rectangular box with two leads and
    two parallel solid lines along side.
 D. Symbol for a fuse with two parallel solid lines
    along side.



3F-2-4.3   C
What is the symbol used to represent an inductor wound
over a toroidal core on schematic diagrams?  (A word
description of the symbol for each choice is given.
The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for toroidal inductor.
 B. Made up Symbol.
 C. Symbol for an iron-core inductor.
 D. Symbol for a fuse with two parallel solid lines
    along side.


3F-3-1.1   D
What is a Capacitor DIELECTRIC?

 A. The insulating material used for the plates.
 B. The conducting material used between the plates.
 C. The Ferrite material that he plates are mounted on.
 D. The insulating material between the plates.


3F-3-1.2   A
What are the component parts of a Capacitor?

 A. Two or more conductive plates with
    an insulating material between them.
 B. The wire used in the winding and the core material.
 C. Two or more layers of silicon material.
 D. Two insulating plates with a
    conductive material between them.



3F-3-1.3   C
What is an ELECTROLYTIC CAPACITOR?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed
    on a thin ceramic layer.
 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated
    by a thin strip of Mica insulation.
 C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one
    set of plates through electrochemical action.
 D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage.


3F-3-1.4   C
What is a PAPER CAPACITOR?

 A. A capacitor whose plates are formed
    on a thin ceramic layer.
 B. A capacitor whose plates are separated
    by a thin strip of Mica insulation.
 C. A capacitor whose plates are separated
    by a layer of paper.
 D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one
    set of plate through electrochemical action.


3F-3-2.1   B
What is a CAPACITOR.

 A. An electronic component that stores
    energy in an magnetic field.
 B. An electronic component that stores
    energy in an electric field.
 C. An electronic component that converts
    a high voltage to a lower voltage.
 D. An electronic component that
    converts power into heat.


3F-3-2.2   D
What are the electrical properties of a Capacitor?

 A. A Capacitor stores a charge electrochemically,
    and opposes a change in current.
 B. A Capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically,
    and opposes a change in current.
 C. A Capacitor stores a charge electromechanically,
    and opposes a change in voltage.
 D. A Capacitor stores a charge electrostatically,
    and opposes a change in voltage.


3F-3-2.3   A
What factors must be considered when
selecting a capacitor for a circuit?

 A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating.
 B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the Kilowatt-Hour rating.
 C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature
    coefficient and the KVA rating.
 D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient
    and the temperature coefficient.


3F-3-2.4   B
How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually specified?

 A. In Volts and Amperes.
 B. In Microfarads and Volts.
 C. In Ohms and Watts.
 D. In Milihenrys and Amperes.


3F-3-3.1   A
What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a Capacitor?

 A. The dielectric constant of the material between
    the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the
    separation between the plates and the number of plates.
 B. The dielectric constant of the material between
    the plates, the number of plates, and the
    diameter of the leads connected to the plates
 C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates
    and whether the material is N type or P type.
 D. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates,
    the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates
    and the type of material used for the protective coating.


3F-3-3.2   B
As the plate area of a capacitor increases,
what happens to its capacitance?

 A. Decreases.
 B. Increases.
 C. Stays the same.
 D. Becomes voltage dependent.


3F-3-3.3   D
As the plate spacing of a capacitor increases,
what happens to its capacitance?

 A. Increases.
 B. Stays the same.
 C. Becomes voltage dependent.
 D. Decreases.


3F-3-4.1   D
What is the symbol used to represent an electrolytic
capacitor on schematic diagrams?  (A word
description of the symbol for each choice is given.
The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for a fuse but with a positive polarity (plus)
    sign on one end.
 B. Symbol for a crystal but with a positive polarity
    sign on one end.
 C. Symbol for a single cell battery with both
    polarities correctly shown (plus and minus signs).
 D. Symbol for an electrolytic capacitor.


3F-3-4.2   A
What is the symbol used to represent a variable capacitor
on schematic diagrams?  (A word description of the symbol
for each choice is given.  The symbol must be drawn in.)

 A. Symbol for a variable capacitor.
 B. Symbol single cell battery with polarity signs but also with an
    arrow thru the symbol appearing to indicate "variable.
 C. Symbol for a crystal but also with an
    arrow thru the symbol appearing to indicate "variable.
 D. Made up Symbol with an arrow thru the symbol
    appearing to indicate "variable.


End  Subelement 3AF



* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

     SUBELEMENT 3AG - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS (1 Exam Question)

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *



3G-1-1.1   A
Which frequencies are attenuated by a Low Pass Filter?

 A. Those above its Cut Off Frequency.
 B. Those within its Cut Off Frequency.
 C. Those within 50 kHz on either side of its Cut Off Frequency.
 D. Those below its Cut Off Frequency.


3G-1-1.2   D
What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency
and attenuates electrical energy above that frequency?

 A. A Band-Pass Filter.
 B. A High-Pass Filter.
 C. An Input Filter.
 D. A Low-Pass Filter.


3G-1-2.1   C
Why does virtually every modern transmitter have a built-in
low-pass filter connected to its output?

 A. To attenuate frequencies below its cutoff point.
 B. To attenuate low frequency interference to other amateurs.
 C. To attenuate excess harmonic radiation.
 D. To attenuate excess fundamental radiation.


3G-1-2.2   B
You believe that excess harmonic radiation from your transmitter
is causing interference to your television receiver.
What is one possible solution?

 A. Install a low-pass filter on the television receiver.
 B. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter output.
 C. Install a high-pass filter on the transmitter output.
 D. Install a band-pass filter on the television receiver.


3G-2-1.1   B
What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain frequency
and attenuates electrical energy below that frequency?

 A. Band-Pass Filter.
 B. A High-Pass Filter.
 C. An Input Filter.
 D. A Low-Pass Filter.


3G-2-2.1   A
Where is the proper place to install a High Pass Filter?

 A. At the antenna terminals of a Television Receiver.
 B. Between a Transmitter and a Transmatch.
 C. Between a Transmatch and the Transmission line.
 D. On a Transmitting Antenna.


3G-2-2.2   B
Your Amateur Radio transmissions cause interference to your
television receiver even though you have installed a low-pass
filter at the transmitter output.  What is one possible
solution for this problem?

 A. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter terminals.
 B. Install a high-pass filter at the television antenna terminals.
 C. Install a low-pass filter at the television antenna terminals
    also.
 D. Install a band-pass filter at the television antenna terminals.


3G-3-1.1   A
What circuit attenuates electrical energy above
a certain frequency and below a lower frequency?

 A. A Band-Pass Filter.
 B. A High-Pass Filter.
 C. An Input Filter.
 D. A Low-Pass Filter.


3G-3-1.2   D
What general range of RF energy does a Band Pass Filter reject?

 A. All frequencies above a specified frequency.
 B. All frequencies below a specified frequency.
 C. All frequencies above the upper limit
    of the band in question.
 D. All frequencies above a specified frequency
    and below a lower specified frequency.


3G-3-2.1   A
The IF stage of a communications receiver uses a filter with a
peak response at the intermediate frequency.  What term
describes this filter response?

 A. A band-pass filter.
 B. A high-pass filter.
 C. An input filter.
 D. A low-pass filter.


3G-4-1.1   C
What circuit is likely to be found in all types of receivers?

 A. An Audio Filter.
 B. A Beat Frequency Oscillator.
 C. A Detector.
 D. An RF Amplifier.


3G-4-1.2   D
What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent?


_________________________________________         Antenna
|     |               |                 |           \|/
|  ___|____       ____|_____       _____|____        |
| |        |      |         |      | Power   |       |
| |  VFO   |----->| Driver  |----->|  Amp    |---->--|
| |________|      |_________|      |_________|
|  ___________      |   ______________   |
|  | Power   |      |  |  Telegraph   |  |
|--| Supply  |      |--|     Key      |--|
   |_________|         |______________|


 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter.
 B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter.
 C. A single-sideband transmitter.
 D. A VFO-controlled transmitter.



3G4-1.3   B
What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent?

                                                            \|/ Antenna
                                                             |
____________       ______________       ______________       |
| Crystal   |      |             |     |  Power       |      |
| Oscillator|----->|  Driver     |---->|              |--->---
|           |      |             |     |   Amp        |
|___________|      |_____________|     |______________|
                       |                        |
                       |                        |
                       |                        |
                       |    ______________      |
                       |   |  Telegraph   |     |
                       |___|              |_____|
                           |    Key       |
                           |______________|


 A. A simple packet-radio transmitter.
 B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter.
 C. A single-sideband transmitter.
 D. A VFO-controlled transmitter.


3G-4-1.4   B
What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram?

Antenna

 \|/  __________     __________      ___________     __________  Speaker
  |  |          |   |          |    |           |   |          |
  |  |  Mixer   |   |    IF    |    |     ?     |   |  Audio   |    /
  |__|          |-->|          |--->|           |-->|          |---|
     |          |   |    Amp   |    |           |   |   AMP    |    \
     |__________|   |__________|    |___________|   |__________|
          ^                               ^
          |                               |
      ____|_____                     _____|_____
     |          |                   |           |
     |   OSC    |                   |   BFO     |
     |          |                   |           |
     |__________|                   |___________|


 A. An AGC circuit.
 B. A detector.
 C. A power supply.
 D. A VFO circuit.


3G-4-1.5   D
What type of device does this block diagram represent?





 _______________________________________          Antenna
|     |               |                 |           \|/
|  ___|____       ____|_____       _____|____        |
| |        |      |         |      | Power   |       |
| |  vfo   |----->| Driver  |----->|  Amp    |---->--|
| |________|      |_________|      |_________|
|  ___________      |   ______________   |
|  | Power   |      |  |  Telegraph   |  |
|__| Supply  |      |__|     Key      |__|
   |_________|         |______________|


 A. A double-conversion receiver.
 B. A variable-frequency oscillator.
 C. A simple superheterodyne receiver.
 D. A simple CW transmitter.



3G-4-2.1   D
What type of device does this block diagram represent?


\|/
 |
 |   ______________        _______________        _______________
 |   |              |      |               |      |               |
 |   |     RF       |      |   MIXER       |      |     WIDE      |
 |-->|    AMP       |----->|               |----->|    FILTER     |---
     |              |      |               |      |               |   |
     |______________|      |_______________|      |_______________|   |
                                  ^                                   |
                                  |                                   |
                                  |                                   |
                           _______|_______                            |
                          |               |                           |
                          |  OSCILLATOR   |                           |
                          |_______________|                           |
                                                                      |
  ---------------------------------<----------------------------------|
 |
 |    ______________        ________________       ________________
 |   |              |      |                |     |                |
 |   |    IF        |      |  LIMITER       |     |  FREQUENCY     |
 |--->    AMP       |----->|                |---->|  DISCRIMINATOR |---
     |              |      |                |     |                |   |
     |______________|      |________________|     |________________|   |
                                                                       |
                            --------------------<-----------------------
                           |
                           |
                           |    ________________
                           |   |                |
                           |   |      AUDIO     |      /
                           |-->|       AMP      |----||  SPEAKER
                               |                |      \
                               |________________|


 A. A double-conversion receiver.
 B. A variable-frequency oscillator.
 C. A simple superheterodyne receiver.
 D. A simple FM receiver.



3G-4-2.2   C
What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram?




 MIC   ______________        _______________        _______________
      |              |      |               |      |               |
 \    |   AUDIO      |      |   CLIPPER     |      |               |
  |-->|    AMP       |----->|   FILTER      |----->|      ?        |---
 /    |              |      |               |      |               |   |
      |______________|      |_______________|      |_______________|   |
                                                           ^           |
                                                           |           |
                                                    _______|_______    |
                                                   |    CRYSTAL    |   |
                                                   |  OSCILLATOR   |   |
                                                   |_______________|   |
                                                                       |
                                                                       |
 -----------------------------------<----------------------------------|
 |
 |
 |                                                                   Antenna
 |    ______________        ________________       ________________   \|/
 |   |              |      |                |     |                |   |
 |   |              |      |                |     |      POWER     |   |
 |--->  MULTIPLIER  |----->|  MULTIPLIER    |---->|       AMP      |---
     |              |      |                |     |                |
     |______________|      |________________|     |________________|


 A. A band-pass filter.
 B. A crystal oscillator.
 C. A reactance modulator.
 D. A rectifier modulator.


End Subelement 3AG



* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

     SUBELEMENT 3AH - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS (2 Exam Questions)

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *



3H-1.1   A
What is the meaning of the term MODULATION?

 A. The process of varying some characteristic of a carrier
    wave for the purpose of conveying information.
 B. The process of recovering audio
    information from a received signal.
 C. The process of increasing the average power
    of a Single Sideband transmission.
 D. The process of suppressing the carrier
    in a Single Sideband transmitter.


3H-2-1.1   A
If the modulator circuit of your FM transmitter fails, what
emission type would likely result?

 A. An unmodulated carrier wave.
 B. A phase modulated carrier wave.
 C. An amplitude modulated carrier wave.
 D. A frequency modulated carrier wave.


3H-2-1.2   B
What emission does not have sidebands resulting from modulation?

 A. AM Phone.
 B. Test.
 C. FM Phone.
 D. RTTY.


3H-2-2.1   C
What is the FCC emission designator for a Morse code telegraphy
signal produced by switching the transmitter output on and off?

 A. Test.
 B. AM phone.
 C. CW.
 D. RTTY.


3H-2-2.2
What is CW?   A

 A. Morse code telegraphy using amplitude modulation.
 B. Morse code telegraphy using frequency modulation.
 C. Morse code telegraphy using phase modulation.
 D. Morse code telegraphy using pulse modulation.



3H-2-3.1   B
What is RTTY?

 A. Amplitude-Keyed telegraphy.
 B. Frequency Shift Keyed telegraphy.
 C. Frequency Modulated telephony.
 D. Phase Modulated telephony.


3H-2-3.2   A
What is the emission designation for Telegraphy by Frequency
Shift Keying without the use of a modulating tone?

 A. RTTY.
 B. MCW.
 C. CW.
 D. Single-sideband phone.


3H-2-4.1   B
What emission type results when an on/off keyed audio tone is
applied to the microphone input of an FM transmitter?

 A. RTTY.
 B. MCW.
 C. CW
 D. Single-sideband phone.


3H-2-4.2   D
What is tone-modulated international Morse code telegraphy?

 A. Telephony produced by audio fed into an FM transmitter.
 B. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone
    fed into a CW transmitter.
 C. Telegraphy produced by on/off keying of the carrier
    amplitude.
 D. Telegraphy produced by on/off keyed audio tone fed
    into an FM transmitter.


3H-2-5.1   A
What is the emission designated as "MCW"?

 A. Frequency-Modulated Telegraphy using audio tones.
 B. Frequency-Modulated Telephony.
 C. Frequency-Modulated Facsimile using audio tones.
 D. Phase-Modulated Television.


3H-2-5.2   B
In an ITU emission designator like A1A, what does
the first symbol describe?

 A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier.
 B. The type of modulation of the main carrier.
 C. The speed of a radiotelegraph transmission.
 D. The type of the information to be transmitted.


3H-2-5.3   C
What emission type results when an on-off keyed audio oscillator
is connected to the microphone jack of an FM phone transmitter?

 A. SS.
 B. RTTY.
 C. MCW.
 D. Image.

3H-2-6.1   A
In an ITU emission designator like F3B, what does the
second symbol describe?

 A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier.
 B. The type of modulation of the main carrier.
 C. The type of the information to be transmitted.
 D. The frequency modulation index of a carrier.


3H-2-6.2   B
How would you transmit packet using an FM 2-meter transceiver?

 A. Use your telegraph key to interrupt the carrier wave.
 B. Modulate your FM transmitter with audio tones from a
    terminal node controller.
 C. Use your mike for telephony.
 D. Use your touch-tone (DTMF) key pad to signal in Morse code.


3H-2-7.1   D
What type of emission results when speaking into the microphone
of a 2-meter FM hand-held transceiver?

 A. Amplitude modulated phone.
 B. Code telegraphy.
 C. An unmodulated carrier wave.
 D. Frequency modulated phone.


3H-2-7.2   B
What emission type do most 2-meter FM transmitters transmit?

 A. Interrupted pure carrier wave.
 B. Frequency modulated phone.
 C. Single-sideband voice emissions.
 D. Amplitude modulated carrier waves.


3H-2-8.1*  C
What is the most important consideration when installing
a 10-meter dipole inside an attic?

 A. It will exhibit a low angle of radiation?
 B. The dipole must always be run horizontally polarized.
 C. It will be covered by an insulation to prevent fire and high
    enough to prevent being accidentally touched during transmission.
 D. Dipoles usually don't work in attics.

 * There is a problem with the answer (C) to question 3H2-8.1, as
   released by the VEC Question Pool Committee.  The most important
   consideration is that an indoor antenna should be treated with
   respect because of the possibility of adverse biological effects
   due to near-field radiation.  Another point to keep in mind is
   that insulated wire does not reduce or eliminate the risk of
   RF burns.  Finally, a dipole does not pose a fire hazard from RF,
   whether it uses insulated or uninsulated wire.


3H-2-8.2   D
Which type of transmitter will produce a frequency
modulated carrier wave?

 A. A CW transmitter.
 B. An amplitude modulation transmitter.
 C. A single-sideband transmitter.
 D. a phase modulated transmitter.


3H-3.1   A
What is the term used to describe a constant-amplitude
radio-frequency signal?

 A. An RF carrier.
 B. An AF carrier.
 C. A sideband carrier.
 D. A subcarrier.


3H-3.2   B
What is another name for an unmodulated radio-frequency signal?

 A. An AF carrier.
 B. An RF carrier.
 C. A sideband carrier.
 D. A subcarrier.


3H-4.1   C
What characteristic makes FM telephony especially well suited
for local VHF/UHF radio communications?

 A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility
    under weak signal conditions.
 C. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise
    ratio above a certain signal amplitude threshold.
 B. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes.
 D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes.


3H-5.1   D
What emission is produced by a transmitter
using a reactance modulator?

 A. CW
 B. Un modulated carrier.
 C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone.
 D. Phase modulated phone.


3H-5.2   C
What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?

 A. Amplitude Modulation.
 B. Pulse Modulation.
 C. Frequency Modulation.
 D. Single-Sideband Modulation.


3H-6.1   D
Many communications receivers have several IF filters that can be
selected by the operator.  Why do these filters have different widths?

 A. Because some ham bands are wider than others.
 B. Because different bandwidths help increase receiver sensitivity.
 C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings.
 D. Because some emission types occupy a wider frequency range
    than others.


3H-6.2   C
List the following signals in order of increasing bandwidth
(narrowest signal first): CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice.

 A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice.
 B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice,
 C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice.
 D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice.


3H-7-1.1   D
To what is the deviation of an
FM transmission proportional?

 A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal.
 B. The frequency and the amplitude
    of the audio modulating signal.
 C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal.
 D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal.


3H-7-2.1   B
What is the result of overdeviation
in an FM transmitter?

 A. Increased transmitter power consumption.
 B. Out of channel emissions. (Splatter)
 C. Increased transmitter range.
 D. Inadequate carrier suppression.


3H-7-2.2   C
What is SPLATTER?

 A. Interference to adjacent signals
    caused by excessive transmitter keying speeds.
 B. Interference to adjacent signals
    caused by improper transmitter neutralization.
 C. Interference to adjacent signals
    caused by over modulation of a transmitter.
 D. Interference to adjacent signals
    caused by parasitic oscillations at the antenna.



End Subelement 3AH



* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

        SUBELEMENT 3AI - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES (3 Exam Questions)

* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *



3I-1-1.1   A
What antenna type best strengthens signals from a particular
direction while attenuating those from other directions?

 A. A Beam antenna.
 B. An Isotropic antenna.
 C. A Monopole antenna.
 D. A Vertical antenna.



3I-1-1.2   D
What is a DIRECTIONAL ANTENNA?

 A. An antenna whose parasitic elements
    are all constructed to be directors.
 B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight
    propagation, but not skywave or skip propagation.
 C. An antenna permanently mounted so
    as to radiate in only one direction.
 D. An antenna that radiates more strongly
    in some directions than others.


3I-1-1.3   C
What is a YAGI Antenna?

 A. Half Wavelength elements stacked vertically
    and excited in phase.
 B. Quarter Wavelength elements arranged horizontally
    and excited out of phase.
 C. Half Wavelength linear driven element(s) with
    parasitically excited parallel linear elements.
 D. Quarter Wavelength, triangular loop elements.


3I-1-1.4   A
What is the general configuration of the radiating
elements of a horizontally polarized Yagi?

 A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged
    in the same horizontal plane.
 B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops
    arranged in parallel horizontal planes.
 C. Two or more wire loops arranged
    in parallel vertical planes.
 D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center
    of an effective RF ground plane.


3I-1-1.5   C
What type of Parasitic Beam Antenna uses
two or more straight metal tubing elements
arranged physically parallel to each other?

 A. A Delta Loop Antenna.
 B. A Quad Antenna.
 C. A Yagi Antenna.
 D. A Zepp Antenna.


3I-1-1.6   B
How many directly driven elements does a Yagi Antenna have?

 A. None; they are all parasitic.
 B. One.
 C. Two.
 D. All elements are directly driven.


3I-1-1.7   A
What is PARASITIC BEAM ANTENNA?

 A. An antenna where the director and reflector
    elements receive their RF excitation by induction
    or radiation from the driven elements.
 B. An antenna where wave traps are used to
    assure magnetic coupling among the elements.
 C. An antenna where all elements are driven
    by direct connection to the feed line.
 D. An antenna where the driven element
    receives its RF excitation by induction
    or radiation from the directors.


3I-1-2.1   B
What is a CUBICAL QUAD ANTENNA?

 A. Four parallel metal tubes, each
    approximately 1/2 electrical wavelength long.
 B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each
    approximately one electrical wavelength long.
 C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength
    high, fed at the bottom.
 D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long.



3I-1-2.2   B
What kind of antenna array is composed of a Square Full Wave
Closed Loop Driven Element with Parallel Parasitic Element(s)?

 A. Delta Loop.
 B. Cubical Quad.
 C. Dual Rhombic.
 D. Stacked Yagi.



3I-1-2.3   D
Approximately how long is one side of the
driven element of a Cubical Quad Antenna?

 A. 2 electrical wavelengths.
 B. 1 electrical wavelength.
 C. 1/2 electrical wavelength.
 D. 1/4 electrical wavelength.


3I-1-2.4   C
Approximately how long is the wire in the
driven element of a Cubical Quad Antenna?

 A. 1/4 electrical wavelength.
 B. 1/2 electrical wavelength.
 C. 1 electrical wavelength.
 D. 2 electrical wavelengths.


3I-1-3.1   A
What is a DELTA LOOP ANTENNA?

 A. A variation of the Cubical Quad Antenna with triangular elements.
 B. A large copper ring used in direction finding.
 C. An antenna system composed of three Vertical
    Antennas arranged in a triangular shape.
 D. An antenna made from several
    coils of wire on an insulating form.



3I-2-1.1   B
To what does the term HORIZONTAL
as applied to Wave Polarization refer?

 A. The magnetic lines of force
    in the radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface.
 B. The electric lines of force
    in the radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface.
 C. The electric lines of force
    in the radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface.
 D. The radio wave will leave
    the antenna and radiate horizontally to the destination.


3I-2-1.2   C
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a
Cubical Quad Antenna have when the feedpoint
is in the center of a horizontal side?

 A. Circular.
 B. Helical.
 C. Horizontal.
 D. Vertical.


3I-2-1.3   C
What electromagnetic polarization does a Cubical Quad
Antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the
Earth's surface and the feedpoint is at the bottom corner?

 A. Circular.
 B. Helical.
 C. Horizontal.
 D. Vertical.


3I-2-2.1   D
What is the polarization of electromagnetic
waves radiated from a Half Wavelength Antenna
mounted perpendicular to the Earth's surface?

 A. Circularly polarized waves.
 B. Horizontally polarized waves.
 C. Parabolically polarized waves.
 D. Vertically polarized waves.


3I-2-2.2   D
What is the electromagnetic wave polarization
of most man made noise in the HF/VHF spectrum?

 A. Horizontal.
 B. Left-Hand Circular.
 C. Right-Hand Circular.
 D. Vertical.


3I-2-2.3   C
To what does the term VERTICAL
as applied to Wave Polarization refer?

 A. The electric lines of force
    in the radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface.
 B. The magnetic lines of force
    in the radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface.
 C. The electric lines of force
    in the radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface.
 D. The radio wave will leave
    the antenna and radiate vertically into the Ionosphere.



3I-2-2.4   D
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a
Cubical Quad Antenna have when the feedpoint
is in the center of a vertical side?

 A. Circular.
 B. Helical.
 C. Horizontal.
 D. Vertical.


3I-2-2.5   D
What electromagnetic polarization does a Cubical Quad
Antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the
Earth's surface and the feedpoint is at a side corner?

 A. Circular.
 B. Helical.
 C. Horizontal.
 D. Vertical.


3I-3-1.1   D
What is meant by the term STANDING WAVE RATIO?

 A. The ratio of maximum to minimum
    inductances on a feed line.
 B. The ratio of maximum to minimum
    resistances on a feed line.
 C. The ratio of maximum to minimum
    impedances on a feed line.
 D. The ratio of maximum to minimum
    voltages on a feed line.


3I-3-1.2   A
What is STANDING WAVE RATIO a measure of?

 A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line.
 B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line.
 C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line.
 D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line.


3I-3-2.1   A
What is meant by the term FORWARD POWER?

 A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna.
 B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna.
 C. The power produced during the positive half of the RF cycle.
 D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier.


3I-3-2.2   B
What is meant by the term REFLECTED POWER?

 A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna.
 B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna.
 C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle.
 D. The power reflected to the transmitter
    site by buildings and trees.


3I-3-3.1   D
What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced
feed line as the Standing Wave Ratio increases?

 A. It is unpredictable.
 B. It becomes nonexistent.
 C. It decreases.
 D. It increases.


3I-3-3.2   C
What type of feed line is best suited to
operating at a high Standing Wave Ratio?

 A. Coaxial cable.
 B. Flat ribbon "Twin Lead."
 C. Parallel Open Wire Line.
 D. Twisted pair.


3I-3-3.3   C
What happens to RF energy not delivered to
the antenna by a lossy coaxial feed cable?

 A. It is radiated by the feed line.
 B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground.
 C. Some of it is dissipated as heat
    in the conductors and dielectric.
 D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of
    forward power to reflected power in the feed line.


3I-4-1.1   D
What is a BALANCED LINE?

 A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground.
 B. Feed line with both conductors connected
    to ground to balance out harmonics.
 C. Feed line with the outer conductor
    connected to ground at even intervals
 D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground.


3I-4-1.2   C
What is an UNBALANCED LINE?

 A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground.
 B. Feed line with both conductors connected
    to ground to suppress harmonics.
 C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground.
 D. Feed line with the outer conductor
    connected to ground at uneven intervals


3I-4-2.1   B
What is a BALANCED ANTENNA?

 A. A symmetrical antenna with one side
    of the feedpoint connected to ground.
 B. An antenna (or a driven element in an array)
    that is symmetrical about the feed point.
 C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed
    point connected to ground to balance out harmonics.
 D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center.


3I-4-2.2   A
What is an UNBALANCED ANTENNA?

 A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array)
    that is not symmetrical about the feed point.
 B. A symmetrical antenna having neither
    half connected to ground.
 C. An antenna (or a driven element in an array)
    that is symmetrical about the feed point.
 D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled
    to ground at uneven intervals.


3I-4-3.1   A
What device can be installed on a Balanced Antenna
so that it can be fed through a Coaxial Cable?

 A. A balun.
 B. A loading Coil.
 C. A triaxial transformer.
 D. A wavetrap.


3I-4-3.2   B
What is a BALUN?

 A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed
    to be fed at the center so that it may be fed at one end.
 B. A device that may be installed on a Balanced Antenna so
    that it may be fed with unbalanced feed line.
 C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to produce
    Horizontally Polarized or Vertically Polarized waves.
 D. A device used to allow an antenna to
    operate on more than one band.


3I-5-1.1   C
List the following types of feed line in order of increasing
attenuation per 100 feet of line (list the line with the lowest
attenuation first) RG-8, RG-58, RG-174 and open wire line.

 A. RG-174, RG-58, RG-8, open wire line.
 B. RG-8, open wire line, RG-58, RG-174.
 C. open wire line, RG-8, RG-58, RG-174.
 D. open wire line, RG-174, RG-58, RG-8.


3I-5-1.2   A
You have installed a tower 150 feet from your radio shack, and have
a 6-meter Yagi antenna on top.  Which of the following feed lines
should you choose to feed this antenna: RG-8, RG-58, RG-59 or RG-174?

 A. RG-8.
 B. RG-58.
 C. RG-59.
 D. RG-174


3I-5-2.1   C
YOu have a 200-foot coil of RG-58 coaxial cable attached to your
antenna, but the antenna is only 50 feet from your radio.
To minimize feed-line loss, what should you do with the
excess cable?

 A. Cut off the excess cable to an even number of wavelengths long.
 B. Cut off the excess cable to an odd number of wavelengths long.
 C. Cut off the excess cable.
 D. Roll the excess cable into a coil a tenth of a wavelength
    in diameter.

3I-5-2.2   B
How does fee-line length affect signal loss?

 A. The length has no effect on signal loss.
 B. As length increases, signal loss increases.
 C. As length decreases, signal loss increases.
 D. The length is inversely proportional to signal loss.


3I-5-3.1   B
What is the general relationship between frequencies passing through
a feed line and the losses in the feed line?

 A. Loss is independent of frequency.
 B. Loss increases with increasing frequency.
 C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency.
 D. There is no predictable relationship.


3I-5-3.2   A
As the operating frequency decreases, what
happens to conductor losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decrease.
 B. The losses increase.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses become infinite.


3I-5-3.3   B
As operating frequency increases, what
happens to conductor losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decrease.
 B. The losses increase.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses decrease to zero.


3I-6-1.1   D
You are using open-wire feed line in your amateur station.
Why should you ensure that no one can come in contact with
the feed line while you are transmitting?

 A. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting
    will cause a short circuit, probably damaging your transmitter.
 B. Because the wire is so small they may break it.
 C. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will
    cause parasitic radiation.
 D. Because high RF voltages can be present on open-wire feed line.


3I-6-2.1   C
How can you minimize exposure to radio frequency energy from
your transmitting antennas?

 A. Use vertical polarization.
 B. Use horizontal polarization.
 C. Mount the antenna where no one can come near them.
 D. Mount the antenna close to the ground.


End Subelement 3AI